I have two Linksys WRT54GL routers running my home network. Still great little gadgets One of them is running the bcrm2.4 release of Backfire 10.03.1, and is my primary gateway to the internet for my home network. However, due to lack of good IPv6 firewall support, this router purely handles IPv4, not IPv6. We'll call this router 1.
My second router sits behind the first one and extends wireless range of the network (same SSID, different channel), as well as allows a couple of wired gadgets to connect to the net. This router is running the bcrm47xx release of Backfire 10.03.1. It also is my IPv6 gateway (currently utilising AICCU and a tunnel from SixXS). We'll call this router 2.
For any device on the network capable of using IPv6, the setup is currently working perfectly. They get their IPv4 address from router 1 via DHCP, and their IPv6 address from router 2 using RADVD.
However, router 1 doesn't have any IPv6 connectivity. Is there a way to have router 1 get an IPv6 address from router 2? I realise this will create a loop of sorts (traffic would go from router 1 to router 2 and back to router 1 again to actually go out onto the internet), but I don't plan for router 1 to be doing anything strenuous via IPv6, I just want it to have the connectivity.
Setting up another tunnel isn't an option (the aforementioned firewall issues being 1 problem, the lack of space being another, router 1 also acts as a free hotspot for people near the house using Chilli, so there's already a bit of space used up), and when I already have a perfectly good gateway on router 2, it seems silly to duplicate it anyway.
Has anyone tried this, or know if it's possible? I've tried the net.ipv6.conf.br-lan.accept_ra=2 trick using sysctl already, didn't seem to work, but I didn't reboot afterwards (I don't think it's necessary anyway, however I'm at work and don't want to risk knocking my connection to home offline).
Thanks for any help anyone can offer